Perhaps. Why is this my answer? Partly because I’m not sure whether or not there is a contradiction between Isaiah 45:5 and John 1:1. If there is, Isaiah 45:5 would be a big problem (or lead to a big problem) for at least many Christians, because at least many Christians believe (1) Isaiah 45:5 is true, (2) John 1:1 is true and (3) Isaiah 45:5 and John 1:1 cannot both be true and also contradict each other.

Let me start by listing Isaiah 45:5 and John 1:1 as they appear in the ESV text of BibleWorks 9:

I am the LORD, and there is no other, besides me there is no God; I equip you, though you do not know me, (Isa 45:5 ESV)

In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (Joh 1:1 ESV)

You see no problem at all? Well, look what happens if the Greek versions of Isaiah 45:5 and John 1:1 are listed:

ὅτι ἐγὼ κύριος ὁ θεός καὶ οὐκ ἔστιν ἔτι πλὴν ἐμοῦ θεός καὶ οὐκ ᾔδεις με (Isa 45:5 BGT)

Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος. (Joh 1:1 BGT)

It is pretty reasonable (but not necessarily right) to conclude that in Isaiah 45:5 it is affirmed that only ὁ θεός is divine and that it is affirmed in John 1:1 that ὁ λόγος is divine (in the same sense as ὁ θεός is divine), but not is (identical to) ὁ θεός. Of course, if only ὁ θεός is divine (in the sense in which ὁ θεός is divine), then it must be false that ὁ λόγος is divine (in that sense) but is not identical to ὁ θεός, at least if we are talking about the same time and if it cannot simultaneously be the case that only ὁ θεός is divine in that sense and ὁ θεός is not the only one divine in that sense.

You might not be tracking at this point so let me say something more simple: It is pretty reasonable to conclude that Isaiah 45:5 affirms that only one being is divine and to conclude that John 1:1 affirms that two beings are divine. It cannot be the case at the same time that only one being is divine and two beings are divine (unless, of course, that can be the case, but that seems pretty unlikely).

Now, there is no contradiction between Isaiah 45:5 and John 1:1 in at least the following four cases:

(A) It is not affirmed in Isaiah 45:5 that only ὁ θεός is divine in the sense in which ὁ θεός is divine and it is affirmed in John 1:1 that ὁ λόγος is divine in that sense.

(B) It is affirmed in Isaiah 45:5 that only ὁ θεός is divine in the sense in which ὁ θεός is divine and it is not affirmed in John 1:1 that ὁ λόγος is divine in that sense.

(C) It is affirmed in Isaiah 45:5 that only ὁ θεός is divine in the sense in which ὁ θεός is divine and it is affirmed in John 1:1 that ὁ λόγος is divine in that sense, but it is not affirmed in John 1:1 that ὁ λόγος and ὁ θεός are not identical.

(D) It is affirmed in Isaiah 45:5 that only ὁ θεός is divine in the sense in which ὁ θεός is divine and it is affirmed in John 1:1 that ὁ λόγος is divine in that sense, but both affirmations involve a different moment of time.

Many Christians would prefer the A state of affairs over the B, C and D states of affairs, believing that ὁ λόγος (the second member of the Trinity) is never identical to ὁ θεός (either the first member of the Trinity or the Trinity as a whole) and that ὁ λόγος is always divine in the same sense as ὁ θεός.

However, the B state of affairs seems much more likely to me. It does look very much like it is affirmed in Isaiah 45:5 that only ὁ θεός is divine in the sense in which ὁ θεός is divine, or something along those lines, and ὁ λόγος and ὁ θεός do seem to differ from each other in John 1:1 and if that is the case then it is not very likely (but admittedly not inconceivable) that it is affirmed in John 1:1 that ὁ λόγος is divine in the same sense as ὁ θεός is divine. That would involve ignorance of Isaiah 45:5, misinterpretation of Isaiah 45:5, rejection of Isaiah 45:5 or something like that.

Would it be a big problem for Christians if the B state of affairs were actual? Maybe not. Perhaps it would not be a big problem if ὁ λόγος and ὁ θεός are both divine but in different senses of the term.

Of course, a Christian could also take the position that A, B, C and D are all false and there is a contradiction between Isaiah 45:5 and John 1:1, but that that is no problem. (Either because Isaiah 45:5 is false, John 1:1 is false or both verses can be true even though they contradict each other). That would be an extreme position to take. Most Christians would want to affirm that Isaiah 45:5 is true, John 1:1 is true and there is no contradiction between them. Would they be right? I’m not sure at this point.